No Income Tax Law (you don't have to pay)

Did you know that Congress has NEVER passed a law requiring ordinary Americans to pay a Federal Income Tax? Furthermore the actual United States tax code itself lists the Federal Income Tax as a "voluntary compliance", since the Federal Reserve Act of 1913 the United States Government has been using totalitarian oppression to silence tax dissenters in the lower courts, even though the Supreme Court itself has ruled in several rulings that the Federal Income Tax itself is unconstitutional. You may believe that the Federal Reserve Notes you pay to the Federal Income Tax go to pay for things such as schools, roads, and defense. This is not the case, schools are funded through state and local taxes, mainly property taxes. Roads and transportation activities are funded through taxes on fossil fuels (bout .49 a gallon right now), and the defense budget is directly proportionate to the amount of Federal Reserve Notes taken in through their legitimate Federal Income Taxes (unlike citizens, corporations are legally liable to pay a Federal Income Tax). We have gone from a country founded on freedom, where any man can develop land, and build his/her own wealth, to a country living on borrowed credit, money not backed up by anything, and a citizenry all to apathetic to even see that they are slowly being enslaved to banking and corporate interests.

 

Yes, that is correct.

 

You should try not paying Federal Tax and let us know how it turns out.

 

There are many people who do not pay the federal income tax. However, I don't recommend anyone not pay the federal income tax because of what can result. The IRS has made people's lives miserable. However, many people have refused to pay their income taxes, were taken to court, and have won.

 

Not true!

 

Gardener, your incorrect. Their is NO law on the books requiring the average citizen to pay Federal Income Tax. Show me the law, show me the actual law...........if you can find it, you'll be the first person in United States history to have done so.

 

http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/data/constitution/amendment16/

 

The Supreme Court put it bluntly: "The 16th amendment created no new power of taxation."

The government has no authority to impose a direct unapportioned tax on the labor of the American people.

There is NO LAW for this.

 

That was before the amendment was ratified by 2/3 vote. Subsequent statutes and the IRS code have made it a fact of life.

 

That's what I thought. I need to find the rulings somewhere, but I remember reading about this ruling........I know what Gardener is talking about also, but to my understanding the 16th amendment has been found by the supreme court not to apply to the average wage earner, and if it IS a law, then why does the IRS code list the Federal Income Tax as voluntary compliance to individuals?? Why are people still occasionally winning tax battles in lower courts based on the fact that their is no law?? Water's all muddy'd now.............I remember when I first learned about this in college, for an entire class my professor lectured on the Federal Income Tax and how their was no law requiring ordinary citizens to pay it. That was less than a decade ago, has a law been inacted since then?

 

The income tax is an ILLEGALLY PASSED tax because it DID NOT receive the required 2/3 majority vote. It was passed by being signed into law illegally. It was illegally ratified.

READ:

http://www.ahherald.com/bishop/2003/gb031016_fed_income_tax.htm

 

Gardener...........I read that link you gave me.........it's just an overview of the 16th amendment........now WHERE in the 16th amendment does it permit collection of Federal Income Tax on a citizen???

 

When and under what ruling did they rule that? I think you will find it was prior to the 16th amendment ratification.

 

The sixteenth amendment.

 

Yeah, I know that as well........but hypothetically let's say that the 16th amendment was completely legal, I still don't see ANYWHERE in it that requires an individual to pay a Federal Income Tax, only corporations. Furthermore, why isn't the word "income" defined in either the 16th amendment OR the IRS code?? From what I gather, "income" is a word that applies to corporations.

 

...........i'm very confused now.

 

The argument that it was not rightly ratified has been discounted.

As to the laws requiring individual income and how it's taxed there's a lot to read.

http://www.law.cornell.edu/wex/index.php/Income_tax#Federal_Statutes

And you can imply a lot of things by the lack of definition, but the generality of the 16th amendment made it legal and possible to suck the wealth from the working poor.

 

Prior to 1913, the word income was an accounting word used solely in relation to corporations....however after 1913, it began to reflect individual monetary wealth as well. Why?

Income is increases in economic benefits during the accounting period in the form of inflows or enhancements of assets or decreases of liabilities that result in increases in equity, other than those relating to contributions from equity participants.
-International Accounting Standards Board

 

Yes, there are many different reasons for it. And you are correct in that it doesn't say it is required for American citizens to pay the income tax.

If you are still confused, watch this video:

http://video.google.com/videoplay?docid=-4312730277175242198&q=America%3A+Freedom+to+Fascism&hl=en

 

The key is prior to 1913.