Our Eastern Catholic and Orthodox brothers and sisters have an interesting theology of Hell. Their logic is thus: Since God is omni-present, Hell as a place separated from God cannot exist. Hell therefore is the experience of the burning of God (God is described like a fire in many cases) and it is unbearable to those who've rejected him while it is bliss for those who accept him (this would be contrary however to the notion that '"nothing clean can enter Heaven"). For one who hates God, union with god is eternal suffering. Like Watchtower People, I think that Hell is ultimately a choice (although they say the second non-existence death is what "Hell" is). Just as in life, some people actively choose to reject God and his love. They will reject God afterward as well. God will not delight in this, but he has given us free will. Some Orthodox follow this reasoning as well where we, in sin and rejection of God and forgiveness, cut ourselves off from God's love. The Catholic Church affirms that Hell is a "place" in the loosest sense, but whether it is created, uncreated, or where it is we cannot say (It could be, like the Orthodox say, actually with God). PS: Can you post a link to where I said it is a part of god's love to create the separation. I do not recall it. If it was in a PM, PM it back to me.
They were perfect and were not subject to inherited sin thus they are totally responsible for the sins they committed. The Scripture says that Jesus had been made alive in the spirit thus the talking to the spirits took place after his resurrection not while Jesus was still dead.
What Jesus said to the criminal was that they would both be in paradise and that it was today that he was telling him that. Jesus was not telling the criminal that they would both be in paradise that very day.
Haha... So what you're telling me is that when he said, "verily I say unto thee, today thou shalt be with me in paridice" That wasn't actuly what he meant, the people who wrote the bible just misplaced the comma?
Yes. Greek has no commas, in fact it is written like this (but in Greek)... verilyisayuntotheetodaythoushaltbewithmeinparadise OWB: i am going to bring the idea of "spirits in prison" to the Bible Questions thread...
Well, there was no punctuation in the original Greek manuscripts and so yes when translated the comma could very easily been misplaced.
Regardless of commas, the phrase "verily I say unto thee", could be constructed this way without a change in meaning, "I tell you truly". The word "today", does not factor well in conjunction with, verily I say unto thee, in regards to the entire statement. It makes no sense for him to be saying, "today I am telling you the truth", as if any other day he would not. The word today properly belongs in conjunction with you will be with me.
See, this is a good example of taking things out of the context of the Bible. You start arguing that it has to mean this or that because yadda yadda and fail to look at the big picture, like after Jesus said this, where was he for the next three days? Jesus was to be in "hell" for the next three days, so whether that hell was, as I say, the common grave of mankind or a place of burning torment, if that criminal was to be with Jesus that very day he would not be in paradise. So either Jesus was lying to that criminal or he was saying that; I'm truthfully telling you today that one day you will be with me in paradise
Actually this is a good example of the apologists trade, you have to add words to the phrase to make it correspond to your conceptual hierarchy. Useless tinkering.
You truly shook up the apologists nest without hat question, great question by the way. Apologist: " Well, you uh, see there was no, uhm, comma in the Greek manuscripts, what he wanted to say was see you around." I find it entertaining.