This is an ongoing dispute i seem to have with people around here. everyone seems to think that for some reason 1 80 is somehow stronger then 2 40's...is there any truth to that? i mean, there the same amount of miligrams so how could one be stronger then the other? they argue its more compact, or theres less filler in an 80 or some bullshit, but is there any reason why: 4 20's would be less strong then an 80 OR 2 40's is less strong then an 80 OR 8 10's would be less strong then an 80? lemme know
Oxycodone is the ingrediant that gets you high, the fillers dont make any difference, they're full of it.
I would much rather have the smaller mg pills anyways...its easier to watch how much your taking. If I had all 80's I'd be dead in a day lol.
The only difference is that with 40's you have more binders/fillers to snort..... Keep in mind though that OC's have about an 80% bioavailability...making chewing them up the most effective method of administration...for the longest lasting, strongest high....you just dont get a rush.... I myself prefer to chew half then snort half.
ive read about 3 posts in the last couple minutes by kissyourkiller. and i havnt found one that does make sense. this is the same person talking about opiate tolerance and saying it takes over 100mgs of valium for mild effects. hmm not sure id take his posts seriously.
He's right, he's saying they are more orally active than through your nasal cavity. Chewing gives a stronger high (chew so your mouth absorbs some) and snorting will give affects quicker than oral dosing. However rectally is probably the best way to get high (besides injecting), your liver won't filter anything out this way.
no. all of your blood is filtered through your liver. It doesn't matter how you administer the drug, it gets filtered through the liver. Taking it rectally bypasses first pass metabolism by the liver, but it still gets metabolized. Otherwise, you would have oxycodone in your system forever.
