I'm reading some essays by Thomas Locke and I saw in the Preface that all of the texts have been translated from Latin. I noticed that a lot of the writting is pretty different from the English we speak today. I was wondering, is this because it was translated from Latin? Or, because it was written in the mid-17th century? Or, a little bit of both? As far as the essays go, they are very interesting, and pretty funny. I espically like A Letter Considering Toleration. It has very interesting commentary on the church forcing others to believe what they believe, or face serious consequences. Weird how much times have changed, huh? Yea, I kind of have two topics going on at once in this thread, sorry.
It's not because it was translated from Latin. The reason why the language is so different is definitely because it was written in the mid 1600's. It's amazing to see how much the English language has changed.
Yea, it is amazing how much it has changed. That's why I asked. Because I know sometimes things get mixed up in translation. Thanks for the quick response!
No problem. Usually things are lost in the translation when it's been translated more than one time. For example, the Bible. Otherwise it should be almost identical to the original.
