http://www.theguardian.com/uk-news/2015/nov/12/gayle-newland-sentenced-eight-years-prison-duping-friend-having-sex What does anyone else think? I though 8 years jail is a bit harsh. She owes her victim and apology and both need counseling. How was the victim so easily duped?
They need to jail the other woman for being a total idiot apparently! C'mon!! A prosthetic penis? Damn!!
I dont exactly see how thats rape, as in non consensual anyway I doubt she'll end up serving anywhere near 8 years If any of this is even true
The "victim" had a relationship with her for two years. She's either a moron or a vindictive ****. I figure the relationship went sour and the bitch cried "victim" to be a dirty ****. If you agree to be blindfold fucked by an internet stranger, you pretty much deserve whatever gets stuck in you. I think the punishment is wicked harsh, stupid bitch "victim".
Sounds like complete bull to me. They had sex ten times before the chick figured out she was getting screwed by a plastic dick?
Plus that undercurrent that the father and judge are actually pissed off their are women that have sex with women, yet another reason why they never git any Plus plus, the father is really more worried about the family's reputation rather than anything to do with his daughter. This reeks of bitchiness all around
except...she consented to have sex with her. she consented to be blindfolded. this doesn't hold up as rape. the only thing she can accuse her of is having been deceived, lied to, and manipulated with. there's grounds for emotional damage.
I watched a doco on this a while ago. Apparently she fooled them all by simply changing the way she wrote in text to pass of as someone else. So I start tlk lyke dis yo I'm totes diff person marrfucker
consent has to be informed to be valid, deception, manipulation and lies can invalidate consent. If you consent to something and then the nature of that thing changes fundamentally (i.e. essentially agreeing to have sex with someone and then being tricked into having sex with someone else that you have not given consent to have sex with) how can that consent still be considered valid? Consider it this way; if I gave consent to have sex with someone that I wanted to have sex with, that person blindfolded me, and then left the room and someone else came in and had sex with me, I am then having sex without having given valid consent, no? The situation does not change just because the first person, in this instance, is fictional. That's still the person that she gave consent to have sex with, and not the person that she ended up having sex with.
This story just does not add up. These two indiviuals spent over 100 hours together watching tv and sunbathing while the victim wore a blindfold the entire time......Wore a blindfold watching tv!!!!!! The accused used a dildo on the victim 10 times before she realized in was a fake dick, come on any woman will immediately know the difference, the victim can not be that naïve, unless she has some sort of neurological damage. Consent does not have to be informed to engage in a sexual act. Consent has to be at least implied. If you ask a woman to have sex with you, and her response is she removes her clothes and spreads her legs for you, that is implied consent for you to engage in the sexual act. Of course a person can at any time may decide to no longer consent, and obviously consent does not pass from one person to another. Informed consent would require a verbal agreement after you explain all the facts, consequences, and implications of engaging in the sexual act.
i was a victim where a woman pretended to know how to cook in order to snag me for a husband....she also should be in jail
no....completely fooled by makeup and lipstick though....i can asure you she was at the time far more beautiful than the accused in this story http://www.nydailynews.com/news/world/brit-woman-jailed-fake-penis-sex-friend-article-1.2433480